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Ste
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Joined: 06 Mar 2007
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 Posted: 06/26/07 - 07:16 Post subject: |
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ALWAYS use a condom cos they are about STIs - NOT just pregnancy.
Yes, you can get an STI if you don't use them.
Yes, you can get pregnant even if you pull out.
To the guy who did it wthout, yes, she could be pregnant. See if she has had a period since and ALWAYS use them in future. There is no excuse for teens to not know about these things these days and condoms are easy to get.
To the person who asked the first question, you CANNOT create and STI.
Fact.
One of you has to have an infection to pass on.
However, condoms should be used anyways unless you are ONE HUNDRED PERCENT SURE that your partner is to be trusted. People lie or just don't know about some things. |
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masteroftheclaw
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Joined: 09 Jul 2007
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| Posted: 07/09/07 - 19:31 Post subject: |
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Whether pre-cum contains sperm or not is not the big issue here. This should be sticked because what if some young gun gets no warnings about getting a girl pregnant?
Perhaps he'll be excited and decide that he can pull out right before he comes and be perfectly alright. So, maybe this is his first time in a girl and OOPS! He comes because it feels REALLY NICE!
Now, at least if he had seen this sticky on the forum he might have thought twice about the pull out method.
Also, I have a question now.
So two perfectly free STD people can't create a disease. An STI.
But then, how has everyone ever gone about contracting the disease from someone else? If nobody was born with a disease, how would anybody have it? (And yes, mothers can pass it on during childbirth, but how did that mother contract it?) Where is the ROOT of STIs? I've been wondering this for a hell of a long time. It must be created somehow, not just passing on, so how does that happen? |
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Ste
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Joined: 06 Mar 2007
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| Posted: 07/09/07 - 19:38 Post subject: |
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| masteroftheclaw wrote: | Whether pre-cum contains sperm or not is not the big issue here. This should be sticked because what if some young gun gets no warnings about getting a girl pregnant?
Perhaps he'll be excited and decide that he can pull out right before he comes and be perfectly alright. So, maybe this is his first time in a girl and OOPS! He comes because it feels REALLY NICE!
Now, at least if he had seen this sticky on the forum he might have thought twice about the pull out method.
Also, I have a question now.
So two perfectly free STD people can't create a disease. An STI.
But then, how has everyone ever gone about contracting the disease from someone else? If nobody was born with a disease, how would anybody have it? (And yes, mothers can pass it on during childbirth, but how did that mother contract it?) Where is the ROOT of STIs? I've been wondering this for a hell of a long time. It must be created somehow, not just passing on, so how does that happen? |
If I remember rightly, HIV was passed onto humans from monkies somehow. Well, the monkey equivelent of what would then be known as HIV. I suppose it was a random virus mutation that was spread through the monkey population through sexual activity. I don't know if this is the case for sure to be honest.
It is DEFINATELY TRUE that one cannot CREATE HIV/AIDS from sexual activity. |
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Upton O'Goode
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Joined: 30 Jul 2007
Posts: 174
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| Posted: 08/15/07 - 20:07 Post subject: Re: Pre-cum?! Pregnancy? YES!!!! |
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| keekee wrote: | YES YOU CAN GET PREGNANT WITH PRE-CUM AND YES STIs CAN BE CONTRACTED AND TRANSFERED THROUGH PRECUM! USE PROTECTION
HOPE THIS HELPS, KEE
XXX |
When I was teaching biology, I used to tell my students about Cowper's gland. Also known as the bulbourethral gland, this tiny, pea-sized organ produces a clear liquid that typically beings flowing out through the urethra as soon as erection occurs, increasing with increasing stimulation. Its purpose is believed to be as a lubricant to aid in penetration.
When ejaculation occurs, spermatozoa are propelled through the urethra in the seminal fluid, but many thousands of spermatozoa remain behind in the glands responsible for producing semen, the prostate gland, the seminal vesicles and Mr. Cowper's diminutive namesake. These sperm cells can remain viable in the maze of ducts inside these organs for several days, fed by the nutritive components fo the seminal fluid.
Consequently, in a sexually active male--and what male isn't? (this always got a huge laugh)--the so-called "pre-coital drop," or the fluid secreted prior to and throughout intercourse by Cowper's gland, will be likely to contain hundreds of viable sperm cells, any one of which is capable of fertilizing an ovum, leading to a condition commonly known as pregnancy and its well-known sequela, the shotgun wedding.
So what do we call people who practice the "withdrawal" method of birth control?
We call them "parents."  |
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robeph
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Joined: 21 May 2008
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| Posted: 05/21/08 - 21:51 Post subject: |
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| doopdoop wrote: | | 99% of the time there is no sperm in precum, please unsticky this thread. |
False.
Abstract excerpt;
'Following 2 approaches, 23 volunteers with a mean age of 28 years provided a total of 58 smears of pre-ejaculatory fluid (PEF) which were examined for sperm content and other characteristics. All but 1 of the volunteers had normal semen analysis results. Small numbers of sperm cells were found: a mean of 1.7 cells/smear (SD=6.8) ranging from 0-35 cells. 40 smears (69%) had 0 cells, 15 (25.9%) had 1-5 cells, and 3 smears (5.2%) had from 10-35 cells'
This says clearly that our of 23 people 69% had 0 cells in a single smear. that means you have a chance of having "some" cells, about 31% chance. if you read the remainder of the data found here, you'll see that the sperm were rarely (in these cases, almost not at all) viable, this means technically this study gives a good case for preejaculatory fluids not being the case for pregnancy... Does this mean there is NO chance, absolutely not. A lot of things go into this and data of the abstract is very concise, at least 41hr since last ejaculation, and 2 urinations since. In these cases the sperm is going to be less, as according to the paper. However, let's assume one masturbated an hour before, has not urinated, and then has sex...the preejaculatory fluid MAY VERY WELL CONTAIN A LOT OF VIABLE SPERM. While this wasn't tested in this, it's a very good assumption. How motile and proper these post ejaculatory remnants will be, I don't know, but I'd not take the chance. --- source: popline.org/docs/0813/041933.html
As for STDs, to clear up some previous questions, although they've been adressed.
A) STDs do not occur spontaneously, eg. they do not form just because you have sex with no protection.
B) taking birth control for women, is a good idea, for pregnancy avoidance (they're a good 99.999% effective AS LONG AS YOU TAKE THEM AT THE SAME TIME DAILY AND DON'T MISS, if you miss a pill, take it as soon as possible and avoid unprotected (use a condom in this time) sex for at least 3 weeks...)
C) You cannot tell if someone has an STD, it's impossible. You can sometimes SEE results of an STD (herpes/syphilis have outward physical signs) BUT these signs aren't always there and the carrier can still pass the disease to you.
D) Its a good idea to always use condoms AND birth control, at least until you're in a 100% committed relationship (and I don't mean almost the whole semester here, I'm talking post high school etc.) and still make sure birth control is being used until you're ready to have kids.
E) all sexual fluids can carry STDs, female and male alike. HOWEVER this is not your only worry. HPV for example is spread by cellular contact, not fluids, so even "dry touching" of sexual organs could conceivably pass this. same goes for herpes, syphilis, although I would imagine these are also fluid transferable. The blood borne pathogen (HIV) in particular is actually spread via circulatory entrance, (unfortunately sex tends to be a traumatic experience, causing small tears, friction rubs, etc that open up the circulatory system however small it may be, still capable of passing along the virus. )
In regards to (E) I don't wish to lessen the fear of HIV, however, to maintain factuality I must submit this;
"Seven (3.52%) of the 199 women (95% confidence interval, 1.55% to 7.41%) who were artificially inseminated with semen from any of five HIV-infected donors and consented to HIV testing tested HIV-seropositive." This shows that only seven of the 199 that used Artificial Insemination from HIV positive donors became seropositive (positive test via blood)... This is far from a 100%, but still shows that semen itself can feasibly pass HIV, whether there was blood in the donated semen of 1 or more donors does not appear to be known as per the paper. -- source http://jama.ama-assn.org/cgi/content/abstract/273/11/854
The thing is, semen / preejaculatory fluid may carry HIV, but to actually "infect" you it must pass into the blood stream, which it only requires but a small entry point, microscopic cuts/tears etc.
Again always wear protection, however slight the risk seems.
robf |
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Guest
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| Posted: 06/04/08 - 07:27 Post subject: |
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Quite simply sperm is produced in the testes.
Pre cum is produced in the Cowper's Glands.
Pre cum is purely a lubricant and when pure does not contain sperm
Pre cum may pick up sperm if the man has ejaculated recently and some sperm are remaining in his uthera.
So yes you can become pregnant from pre cum but only if the man has ejaculated recently and had some sperm remaining in his uthera.
If the man has not ejaculated recently there will be no sperm remaining in the uthera for the pre cum to pick up - so you will not become pregnant from pre cum. |
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unique userrname
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Joined: 11 Jun 2008
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| Posted: 06/11/08 - 09:23 Post subject: |
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| I just had sex with my girlfriend and i had a condom off for the last 2 minutes or so. I pulled out right before I came and didn't actually come in her. Last night, i masturbated. i've peed two times since between last night and me having sex with her. should the urine have cleaned out my uretha before my precum went into her? |
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KrisDearest
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| Posted: 07/01/08 - 21:07 Post subject: |
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My boyfriend and I started to have sex the other night but did not finish because we were too scared of getting me pregnant.
I am still technically a virgin because he did not 'pop my cherry' or anything to that affect, nor did I bleed, but he was still part way inside me and unprotected before we came to our senses.
Is it possible for me to get pregnant? |
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robeph
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Joined: 21 May 2008
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| Posted: 07/05/08 - 12:45 Post subject: |
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Yes, you are no longer a "virgin" popping a cherry, is while referential to breaking the hymen, it is more an association with the actual process of losing ones virginity. So while no blood, no pop, or no pain occurred, you still lost your virginity since you did technically have sex, finished or not. But virginity, it's just a word, one without really much meaning in my humble opinion. Means what you want.
Now, your other question, yeah, you could end up pregnant, although I'd actually say it's more unlikely than people'd lead you to believe, since it is still a sizable chance, I'd hop on over to the pharmacy and tell'm to give you one of those day after pills. They're bound by privacy laws so no worries about your parents finding out if thats a worry.
In finality, I suggest simply this. Don't have sex until you understand fully the consequences, how and why pregnancy occurs and how you could become pregnant, STDs, (even if you think the person is 'clean' always treat them as if they're not until you have some medical confirmation, eg. use condoms! ) , etc. |
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ntrd
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| Posted: 07/06/08 - 14:59 Post subject: |
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So it is not the pre-cum that contains sperm in itself right? The only reason of sperm's presence is because of previous ejaculation. So if one urinates and washes off the penis will avoid the shances for the sperm to survive within penis. So how effective is that? How sure can one get if he didin't ejaculate within 24h, urinated and washed off his penis?
Today I asked the same questions below this stiky. But recieved no answeres yet.
Just wanna be sure.  |
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SteadyHealth.com - Health Topics Forum Index -> Sexual Health -> Sexual Intercourse & Orgasm
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