Hello,
I have a question in my mind that upsets me so bad. I am writing to you hoping you have enough data and you know enough things about Postinor so that you can answer me.
My problem and my questions follow here:
I have been diagnosed with PCOS. I have always had an irregular period. I had my period once at two months, three months, four and now is coming even more rarely.
About 4 years ago, I had an attempt of defloration, but my partner had some problems, (maybe not enough excited, as he felt guilty) and he didn't manage. He didn't ejaculate or something, I don't know if teher was even precum, I think not, especially that he didn't have a complete erection. Anyway, I have imediately (20 minutes after) taken Postinor. 8 days after the pill I had a dark brown discharge, only some spots, very weak in quantity. This discharhge I had only lasted for 3-4 days, while my period is about 6-7
days. Afterward, I didn't bleed at all for about 3 or 4 months. The day I took the pill, there were about 55 days from the previous period.
So my question is: was I in an anovulatory period? If I had ovulation when I took the pill, shouldn't I have had a period that would have consisted not only in some spots?
Some other data. Later aftre this event, I used COCs(Microgynon) for about 2 month and few days. But at that time I wasalso using condom, so I'm not worried about abortifacent effects fotr that time. But. When I took the pills my period lasted for about 5-6 days. And I thought and please tell me if I am right: if at that time when I took the pills the endometrium wasn't so developped as in normal circumstances, andDidn't get so thick as normal, and still I ghad 5 full days of bleeding; then, doesn't this mean that if I were colse to ovulation when I took postinor (so at the end of the proliferative phase, when all the endometrium was developed), I should have had at least 5 days of bleeding and, in any case, more blod quantity than few spots?
It is a problem of conscience for me, please do not turn your back on me!
Some more data. When I took my analysis, I had the testosteron pretty much surpassing the upper limit, LH/FSH:3:1 in day 6 (folicular phase). Progesteron day 21 was under the minimum level that was considered to be normal.
Please do not leave my without an answer! I read your site and I think you really do a professionist job. My concern is not to have eliminated a little tiny creature.
Thank you so much!
I have a question in my mind that upsets me so bad. I am writing to you hoping you have enough data and you know enough things about Postinor so that you can answer me.
My problem and my questions follow here:
I have been diagnosed with PCOS. I have always had an irregular period. I had my period once at two months, three months, four and now is coming even more rarely.
About 4 years ago, I had an attempt of defloration, but my partner had some problems, (maybe not enough excited, as he felt guilty) and he didn't manage. He didn't ejaculate or something, I don't know if teher was even precum, I think not, especially that he didn't have a complete erection. Anyway, I have imediately (20 minutes after) taken Postinor. 8 days after the pill I had a dark brown discharge, only some spots, very weak in quantity. This discharhge I had only lasted for 3-4 days, while my period is about 6-7
days. Afterward, I didn't bleed at all for about 3 or 4 months. The day I took the pill, there were about 55 days from the previous period.
So my question is: was I in an anovulatory period? If I had ovulation when I took the pill, shouldn't I have had a period that would have consisted not only in some spots?
Some other data. Later aftre this event, I used COCs(Microgynon) for about 2 month and few days. But at that time I wasalso using condom, so I'm not worried about abortifacent effects fotr that time. But. When I took the pills my period lasted for about 5-6 days. And I thought and please tell me if I am right: if at that time when I took the pills the endometrium wasn't so developped as in normal circumstances, andDidn't get so thick as normal, and still I ghad 5 full days of bleeding; then, doesn't this mean that if I were colse to ovulation when I took postinor (so at the end of the proliferative phase, when all the endometrium was developed), I should have had at least 5 days of bleeding and, in any case, more blod quantity than few spots?
It is a problem of conscience for me, please do not turn your back on me!
Some more data. When I took my analysis, I had the testosteron pretty much surpassing the upper limit, LH/FSH:3:1 in day 6 (folicular phase). Progesteron day 21 was under the minimum level that was considered to be normal.
Please do not leave my without an answer! I read your site and I think you really do a professionist job. My concern is not to have eliminated a little tiny creature.
Thank you so much!
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