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Could someone please explain this to me my doctor has but I really need some more info the results of a lower lumbar mri are as follows
L4/5: There is disc bulging in addition to a broad-based left subarticular/foraminal and disc protrusion with associated annular tear. The disc herniation extends posteriorly approximately 5 mm and contributes to mild left subarticular and foraminal stenosis. It does not impinge the exiting left L4 nerve root, wo significant right subarticular/ foraminal stenosis is seen. There is minimal flattening of the ventral thecal sac,
L5/S1: There is disc desiccation and bulging in addition to a focal posterior central disc herniation just meeting the criteria for extrusion. It extends posteriorly proximally 4 mm and exhibits very minimal mass effect upon the ventral thecal sac. The disc appears to just abut the descending right SI nerve root. No significant subarticular /foraminal stenosis is present.
Visualized portions of the spinal cord are normal in signal intensity. The conus medullaris terminates at T12-L1.


Could you tell me your age and the motive why your doctor ordered a MRI?