Seven years before I met my wife she got extremely drunk at a party and went home with a man. She blacked out at the house. He blacked out at the house. Neither of them recalls if intercourse actually occurred. The only thing she remembers is a vision of ‘fumbling with a condom’ and waking up vaginally sore. It would have been her first and only time before me but she isn’t sure if it happened because there was no bleeding. We both know that many/most woman do not bleed on their first sexual experience. However seven years after that experience when she and I started having sex, she bled for the first 2 or 3 times, maybe 4. I’m just an average male, so I don’t think size played a large part in the bleeding. She was about 20 lbs heavier with him than with me, could that have made a difference? Could the large quantity of alcohol or a condom have made any difference (we did not use a condom every time)? Since she bled several times in the beginning with me, is it likely that they actually had sex seven years earlier? One last thought, age, she was 23 for him and 30 for me, could that have made any difference?
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Its sounds like she did have sex that night. bleeding than or now doesnt mean anything. A woman could bleed today and not tomorrow, its funny that way.
For herto remember a condom and be sore, I'd say yeas, but what difference does it make to you, it was long before you. Only if your worried about herpes or HIV would I pay attention to it, then I'd get teted, hopefully there really was a condom involved
For herto remember a condom and be sore, I'd say yeas, but what difference does it make to you, it was long before you. Only if your worried about herpes or HIV would I pay attention to it, then I'd get teted, hopefully there really was a condom involved
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