I have a peculiar problem for which I do not find any answers on the FAQs and message boards. I am too hesitant to ask a gynaec about this problem. I hope to get some answers and guidance on this forum though.

I am almost 39 years old. I have a 5+ years old daughter. I had conceived only after 4 years of trying and then had consulted a doctor who asked me to maintain temp charts and also advised me to take Clomid. I conceived soon after this. I had a normal delivery too. :)

Now I am coming to my main quetion. I used birth control pills for some time after the birth of my daughter. Later stopped using it due to some infection on the advise of my doctor. My husband used condoms for some time after that. Later we tried and realized that i do not need any method of contraception now as I am not conceiving (nor do we want another child) . We are not using any method of contraception since last 3-4 years. Therefore do I take it for granted that I will never conceive now and do not have to use birth control pills etc not to conceive in future. Or should I still consult my gynaec about this. I am having regular cycles and have also been going regularly for my medical checkups. But have not discusssed this particular issue with my gynaec so far.

Please advise as soon as possible.