Hey! I'm a 25 year old guy whose relatively new to the whole sex thing. Late bloomer I guess.
Anyway, I had unprotected sex with another dude. We were both insertive and receptive I received oral sex, there was kissing involved, and it's my first time ever being insertive without a condom. Two days later I noticed slight clear discharge and slight burning sensation while urinating which lasted for more than two weeks and a sore throat that lasted a week. Got tested and was positive for chlamydia. I told the other guy and he claims to have gotten tested and is negative.
I've only had sex one other time a month before this guy with another dude, and it was my first time ever, where I was insertive (with a condom) and received oral sex (condom-less). Did get a sore throat the day after my first time too. Other than that I received oral sex from two other guys and that's it for my sexual history.
With that said, is it likely I could have gotten chlamydia from those times I had oral sex? I think I caught it from the guy I had unprotected sex with, but the symptoms occurred right after. Shouldn't there be an incubation period where I'm symptomless for at least week or something?
Also he claims he got tested and is negative for everything (could be lying). If I didn't get it from him. I must've gotten it from oral since the only other time I had sex I used a condom. I must have been carrying it for a least a month without any symptoms of it wasn't from him. So what do you guys think?
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Hi Guest,
Chlamydia can show as soon as 2 days after exposure. It can also take up to 30 days or more to show.
Could be either.
You didn't perform oral on any of your other partners and used a condom with the first guy? I'd tend to favor guy #2. When did he get tested?
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