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I was wondering if herpetic whitlow is most often due to autoinoculation from genital herpes. This is something I have heard lately, and I am interested into this problem. I guess therefore, it should be something like secondary to infection with HSV-2. I want to hear your words what exactly herpetic whitlow is because I have to admit I do not understand it. In addition, I need info what cause this, is that the same herpes simplex virus as causes infection of usual herpes.

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Herpetic whitlow is an intense painful infection of the hand. This is involving one or more fingers that typically affects the terminal phalanx. Herpes simplex virus 1 (HSV-1) is the cause in approximately 60% of cases of herpetic whitlow. Herpes simplex virus 2 (HSV-2) is the cause in the remaining 40% of herpetic whitlow. As in other mucocutaneous herpetic infections, herpetic whitlow is initiated by viral inoculation of the host through exposure to infected body fluids. This is happening via a break in the skin, most commonly a torn cuticle. The virus then invades the cells of the dermis and subcutaneous tissue, and clinical infection ensues within a matter of days, depends from person to person. In children, HSV-1 is the most likely causative agent for herpetic whitlow. Infection involving the finger usually is due to autoinoculation from primary oropharyngeal lesions. This happens because of finger-sucking or thumb-sucking behavior in patients with herpes labialis or herpetic gingivostomatitis.
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i've had herpetic whitlow since i was 4, i'm now 22 and it has escalated into a severe blood infection and due to mal-practice from the doctors on my case, i now have permanent nerve damage. does this ever happen, i didn't think it could get so bad.
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