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I would like your opinions in order more fully understand the moral issues of abortion. NONE OF THIS RELATES TO ME PERSONALLY I just want to gain perspective.

Would you consider it morally wrong for a woman to have an abortion under the following unlikely yet possible circumstances:
-The woman took preventative measures against pregnancy (lets say she had an IUD still present from a year ago) and/or took the birth control pill to help regulate her cycle, but did not engage in any sexual acts. She lives in an environment with male roomates and uses a towel that has sperm on it or somehow transfers the fluid to her vagina and ends up pregnant. She took preventative measures against pregnancy and did not do anything to cause the pregnancy, it was a total misfortune. Would you feel that it would be morally acceptable for her to get an abortion?

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The whole scenario you have presented is highly unlikely....very, highly unlikely... a woman on birth control, no sexual contact...takes a shower, comes into contact with sperm from a male "roommate," and becomes pregnant????? Come on, someone is NOT telling the truth! The odds against this scenario ring very speculative to me at best..and NO I would not support this woman getting an abortion because the likelihood of this happening is just way too unlikely, JMHO. o.O
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The only time you can get pregnant is from having sexual intercourse with the penis penetrating inside the vagina! Not unless a guy just cummed right on a towel and then she shoved the towel up her vagina. Then it's not likely she was pregnant at all unless she had unprotected sex or used a condom and it busted. But I am against abortion and yes even if it was a n accident pregnancy she should still remain pregnant and then put the baby up fot adoption if she doesnt want it but never kill a human being
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Thank you so much for your feedback! It is greatly appreciated.
Sorry-basically what I was trying to ask was your opinion if someone got pregnant without having intercourse, which according to extensive research is possible (if the fluids make contact with the vagina somehow before it dries up) but highly, highly, highly unlikely, especially with preventative hormones-just trying to create a hypothetical situation for my question to explain it basically.
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