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I was told I have/had gonorrhea on Monday, had a prescription called in for Cipro, and promptly took it. The problem is that I can't figure out how I would have gotten it or if there was a possibility of misdiagnosis.


I've been with two partners since my last annual exam, and was clean then. I haven't had condomless sex with either of them. Partner number 2 is my current partner, and he tested clean last summer. I don't have contact with the other, who I was only with early March. Also, I had a UTI mid-July, that I was prescribed Levaquin 500mg for three days. I've done my research, and since Levaquin is also a potential treatment, shouldn't that have cured both infections and therefore led to a negative result? I can't figure out how I would have gotten gonorrhea when I've been as precautious as possible when having sex and had an antibiotic that should have cleared it up before I was even tested for it as part of my latest annual. I haven't had symptoms, which appears to be the norm.


Is there any possibility of a misdiagnosis, false positive, etc? I'm just baffled and would like some advice. Luckily, my partner is very understanding and just as confused as I am as to where it came from.


Thanks

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There is always the possibility of a misdiagnosis.

Probably the two most common tests are a gram stain or a culture. The gram stain is quick, they basically take a sample and look at it under a microscope, or the culture which can take a couple of days. The culture is the most accurate.

The timing is another matter, if it really is positive. You took Levaquin almost 3 months ago. Since we don't know when you may have contracted this it is hard to say.

They can always repeat the test. Hope it helps.
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