The intercourse was on the 8th and 9th day of my cycle, and I ovulate on day 14

Hi Amy

If you ovulate CD14 (16th) then you would likely be fertile CD9 (11th), although I would have suggested you would ovulate CD15 (17th) in which case you would likely not be fertile CD9 (11th). You said "there was no pre-cum or ejaculation", but you cannot be sure there was no pre-cum. You said "The penis was dry the whole time", but I would assume you must have had some wetness in your vagina, so his penis would have got wet. If there were pre-cum, it would probably not have been noticed. "He wasnt no where close to ejaculation either time", so when did he ejaculate on each occasion (especially the 11th)?

You cannot be pregnant yet, as you haven't ovulated, but there is just a slight risk you might get pregnant. Were these 2 times the only times you have had sex?

I hope this helps as a start.

 

He didnt ejaculate at all, he wasnt even close either time. We stopped having sex way before he was even close. Today I have slight bleeding, I read online that it may be ovulation bleeding. Plus I have slight cramping on the side of my stomach and on both sides of my hips. When his penis came out it wasnt wet, and I didnt see any precum. And yes those were the only two times sex has occured with us.

I am a bit concerned that you lost your virginity without being properly aroused, but you are probably going to be OK. You haven't ovulated yet, so I would not think it were ovulation spotting, although having had sex, it might have had a slight impact on your hormone levels. The cramping might be because of ovulation approaching, or a reaction to your intercourse. But I wouldn't be too concerned at this stage. How old are you?

No I didnt just lose my virginity, I been not a virgin before this occured. And Im 24. Whats the percentage of pregnancy occuring with this situation? Should I still take this into consideration or mostlikely I'm not pregnant/shouldn't have to worry

The percentage is very low, but even if it were just 0.01%, you could be that 1 in 10000! So I am not sure that helps. If what you say is right about no pre-cum, then you could not be pregnant. There has to be sperm entering your vagina at a fertile time. I still wonder about the lack of pre-cum, and the fact he was dry. There must have been some lubrication in your vagina. Was there no fore-play? So if he were dry, it could have been wiped dry as he came out. Is he circumcised? Also you had intercourse for 30 minutes, and there was no pre-cum? I find that difficult to accept in a young man, but if he didn't ejaculate at all those days (before or after sex), maybe he has difficulty in ejaculating. All in all, I don't think you are likely to get pregnant. It happened at a time when you might not have been fertile. His pre-cum might not have contained sperm. There was little vaginal fluid. You (presumably) didn't orgasm. But I hesitate to say there is no chance at all.

What if the odds was there was precum and it contained sperm and got inside of me? Could I become pregnant? Not saying thats ehat happened but what if?

Some women try hard to get pregnant, having sex almost every day, and it takes years. Others get pregnant first time they have sex. Some without even having intercourse. But there is certainly the chance. It only takes one sperm. As sperm can live in your body for 5 or six days, your 2nd day of sex might just have been within that time-frame, depending when you ovulate.

So basically there is a chance? But do you think I should take it into consideration?

There is always a chance when you have sex, and especially when so close to ovulation.

But what do you mean by "take it into consideration"? I don't think you should ignore the risk, even though I believe it is very low.

Where are you from?

I have bad cramping on my side , above my right hip . And Is the probability of getting pregnant from precum if you presume they didnt have a previous ejaculation before intercourse high?

Cramping might be due to ovulation soon to happen.

Regarding pre-cum, according to some research, some men always have sperm in their pre-cum; others do not. Additionally, if ejaculation has taken place, then there would be residual semen left in the urethra (unless flushed out by subsequent urination) which would mix with any pre-cum.

If ejaculation had not occurred previously for a long time, then there might be a quicker response to stimulation, and sperm might rise earlier than expected. But that would depend on the guy concerned. Think of yourself. If you haven't orgasmed recently, you might be quick to get aroused. On the other hand, if it were a long time ago, it may take you longer (use it or lose it), or maybe not. Males differ in this respect from females, but the principle is the same. People vary.

Having said all that, there are many, many fewer sperm in pre-cum than in ejaculate, and the timing suggests that it would possibly only just in the 'fertile days'. So any sperm managing to reach your fallopian tubes would probably have to survive (stay alive and motile) for the longest time.

I hope this answers your question. If not, ask for clarification. If you need any part of the 'process' explaining, or you want to understand your anatomy better, also ask (there are no stupid or too-basic questions), privately if you prefer.

Alright thankyou, so with that said the probability of pregnancy in this situation is very low?

Yes, the probability of pregnancy is very low.

Thankyou very much, I really apperciate your help and concern.