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I'll exsplain more clearly... Im meaning is lets say a guy goes and does not cum for 7 days and since they say that urianating can kill previous sperm for loads of websites i saw. Im putting it as this. He goes threw around 7 days with out cumming and goes day by day and urinates and what not to get previous cum out so it does not mixture in with pre cum. Then he goes and does his girlfriend and urinates + cleans himself on the 7th day before they do it without a condom and do the pull out method successfully. Will that mean that she can get pregnate or no? Im suggesting not since the previous cum will be flushed out and he wont cum to make more cum left behind (previous cum) and all that also since he can control himself and know when he's going to cum and takes it out and cums were ever besides near the vagina like ex. (Mouth). Im just wondering. Y! Answers is not working for me because it deletes my question and people laugh at me and my question when im serious and say im dumb. Just plain rude comments but this site seem's good to put my answer down. Please help. Thanks :)


Hi Taina,

OK, heres the thing about precum...

If you haven't ejaculated recently, it doesn't have to be 7 days, then the first ejaculation is considered not to contain sperm.
If you have just ejaculated, and not urinated, then it may contain sperm.

Urinating "flushes" out the urethra.  That's all.  It may not flush out all the sperm either.  It only takes ONE!

Now, the pull-out method is NOT a form of birth control.  There is ALWAYS a chance of pregnancy with ANY sexual contact.  Dont' be too sure that he can "control himself" either.

Since you also say he ejaculates "near" your vagina, you need to be careful.  If it gets IN, then you may get pregnant.

Use a form of birth control or make him.  You're taking a lot of chances.