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On February 21st I came back from a family vacation. On Feb 24th I started back having sex with a guy who I've been talking to for over a year. We stopped having sex for months because he was not ready for commitment. I didn't want to suffer sexually so occasionally I gave in to sex from a guy from the past. My period lasted from Feb 21st - Feb 25th (When I had sex with guy #1 I thought my period had ended but he ended up having blood on him). I had sex with guy #1 March 3-5th every day and each time it was unprotected and he did ejaculate in me. On March 10th i had sex with guy #2 which was completely unplanned. Guy #2 was resting on top of me then immediately I told him immediately to get up and do not cum in me. He jumped up and grabbed a paper towel and made all the noises so while jacking himself off. I checked the paper towel and it was wet.

March 21st I took a test and found out I was pregnant. I'm attached to guy #1 and guy #2 I could never see a future with. 

 

 

 

So you all know how they say to go by the ultrasound because it's more accurate? I just went to my doc this past Friday to ask if she went by my lmp or if she went by the measurement of the ultrasound...she went by my lmp. She said according to my ultrasound my due date would be the Dec 3rd meaning. I had to conceive on the 12th. Again, I had sex with Guy #2 on March the 10th and he pulled out and had sex with Guy #1 March 12 th at 3:45am ( I reread our text) and he ejaculated in me. 

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Based on the information below and looking at an online ovulation calendar if you have a 28 to 31 day cycle having multiple sessions of unprotected sex with ejaculation on the 3-5th march would have been at your most fertile time, I reckon it is 99% certain guy 1 is your babies father.
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I'm really hoping so because I don't see how I could've ovulated so late when my periods aren't irregular. They come monthly and last 5-7 days.
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