I would REALLYYYY appreciate any answers I can get as I am falling into shambles here!!! I have avidly started researching & have come across some people who seem to have run into a similar situation that my fiance' and I are facing:
Right before my fiance' & I met and began dating, a little over a year ago, I tested positive for Chlamydia from a previous partner. I was treated, and a week later my fiance' and I engaged in sexual activity, however, we did not have intercourse until 18 days after my treatment. Either way, I have been told and in my research I see that the medication given should clear the STI up within a week. I was told the medicine was also really good, and there should be no worry that it won't work, and because of that, I didn't go back for a test of cure 3 months later as generally recommended. 6 months later however, things didn't seem quite right down there and I got tested. No infections, and the STI test was negative, so I brushed it off my shoulder. NOW 5 months down following that last test, my fiance' and I BOTH began having symptoms within 2 days of each other. My fiance' and I are faithful to each other, so neither one of us could have come into contact with it. The doctors are telling me that there is a paper trail. I had a POSITIVE test, was treated, had a NEGATIVE test, and now am testing POSITIVE. They are saying something had to have happened in between my last test and now.
I asked if it is possible that when my fiance' and I first started being sexually active, if I could've given it to him, and then it has been dormant in his body until now, in which I got it back from him. They said he would've had symptoms all along, and that I would not have tested negative months down the road (like I did) had that happened. BUT, what I don't get is that I have heard and read that you can have Chlamydia for months, to even a year or years without symptoms ( I don't believe that that constitutes as it being dormant). I mean, there is a REASON it is called the "SILENT" STI, so I don't understand how they can say that he would've had symptoms all along if I did pass it to him.
I also asked if it was possible that my treatment never worked, and the test that I took 6 months later was a false negative. These medical professionals are saying there are no IF ANDS OR BUTS about it. That if I was negative, that I was negative.
If anyone else out there has faced a similar situation, please respond. I am going CRAZY. I believe anything is possible, and nothing is 100%, as there is such things a human error! But instead, this is throwing my life for a whirl, as there people are making me second guess things with there "scientific tests." :-(