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To disclaim: i do not participate in "penetrative" sex. All activity mentioned is oral sex. (not that it's any better, obviously) In January/February, I receive full testing for all STDs after receiving that I has possibly been exposed to a bacterial STI. They all came back negative. I became involved with someone whom I became intimate with and exchanged oral sex. He abstained for about a year prior. We called it quits almost three weeks ago (about when we were last intimate). I received a text message yesterday, accusing me of giving him a bacterial STI. I'm quite confused, but I'm guessing that the infection could be localized in my throat and is asymptomatic. From the incubation time on his end, I've narrowed the infection to Chlamydia. Could this have produced negative blood work and test results? Is this probable?


Hi Boiboy,

He hasn't told you what the infection is?  Just that it's "bacterial?"

If it is chlamydia then the incubation period is short, 1-3 weeks or so.  You would have had to have been contagious at the time.  The thing with chlamydia though is that it often does not present with any symptoms.  He could have had it for a while.  Gonorrhea also incubates in just a few weeks, actually, many bacterial STD's do.

He's being vague, to vague.  Find out what he has.