This might be confusing but I'm going to try to make it as clear as I can. I really need some answers so if anyone can give me some advice, please do.
Two and a half years ago I had an abnormal pap smear. My doctor sent me to a specialist and I had freezing done on my cervix. I assumed I had HPV and that is what caused this. Six months later my boyfriend cheated on me, and contracted chlamydia. One month later he had bumps on his penis, which he blamed on the HPV I had. I never had any bumps on my vagina, so it confused me why he got them and I didn't. After he had the bumps treated and we had gotten back together, we had unprotected sex for a period of about a year and a half and I never once had any bumps appear. I also have gone back to my gynocologist many times and have been checked and he said all was clear.
Since about three months ago I started being sexually active with my current boyfriend. Everything was fine until about one month ago when I started having trouble urinating. I went to the doctor, she examined me and told me that I had small white bumps inside my vagina. She said it was a form of herpes, but I'm pretty sure it is HPV. Since then my boyfriend has had bumps appear in his mouth and on his fingers, which came into contact with my vagina.
I have not touched my ex boyfriend since october 2007. Now these bumps appear from nowhere and I'm having trouble figuring out where they came from. My boyfriend had sex with a girl a few weeks before he and I started being sexually active. He asked the girl if she ever had anything and she said she didn't, but she can't be trusted.
I hope this made sense, but I have two questions. One is can the same strain of HPV that causes abnormal pap smears cause genital warts? And does it make sense that I had the virus that causes genital warts for years and it suddenly became active right now? I really need answers, please. I'm trying to figure out where these bumps came from, I'm very confused.
Two and a half years ago I had an abnormal pap smear. My doctor sent me to a specialist and I had freezing done on my cervix. I assumed I had HPV and that is what caused this. Six months later my boyfriend cheated on me, and contracted chlamydia. One month later he had bumps on his penis, which he blamed on the HPV I had. I never had any bumps on my vagina, so it confused me why he got them and I didn't. After he had the bumps treated and we had gotten back together, we had unprotected sex for a period of about a year and a half and I never once had any bumps appear. I also have gone back to my gynocologist many times and have been checked and he said all was clear.
Since about three months ago I started being sexually active with my current boyfriend. Everything was fine until about one month ago when I started having trouble urinating. I went to the doctor, she examined me and told me that I had small white bumps inside my vagina. She said it was a form of herpes, but I'm pretty sure it is HPV. Since then my boyfriend has had bumps appear in his mouth and on his fingers, which came into contact with my vagina.
I have not touched my ex boyfriend since october 2007. Now these bumps appear from nowhere and I'm having trouble figuring out where they came from. My boyfriend had sex with a girl a few weeks before he and I started being sexually active. He asked the girl if she ever had anything and she said she didn't, but she can't be trusted.
I hope this made sense, but I have two questions. One is can the same strain of HPV that causes abnormal pap smears cause genital warts? And does it make sense that I had the virus that causes genital warts for years and it suddenly became active right now? I really need answers, please. I'm trying to figure out where these bumps came from, I'm very confused.
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