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My wife had unsafe sex once with a guy on 7th March 2013. She did tell me later on while I was continuoulsy doing sex with her without any break.Her menstrual cycles started on 23 Feb then 22nd March and finally on 20th April. Since 20th April, she has no menstrual cycle and now strip test comes positive yesterday.The ambiguity in my mind is that whether she is carrying my child or it belongs to that guy who had sex with her on 7th March?Advice required please.

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You may require a DNA test if you had sex continually with her and she had a one-night stand during that time as well.  No way that there will be a definite pinpoint to when conception actually took place.  Are the two of you happy and trying to work things out?  How are YOU feeling about all of this besides overwhelmed?

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Hi Punjab,

If she had normal periods on 22nd March and the 20th April then it is VERY UNLIKELY that she was pregnant from the "guy" on 7 March. She can not have a normal period if she is pregnant. The lining of the uterus is replaced and she would miscarry.

Odds are that YOU ARE the father.
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Thanks Lizardqueen420. Being an Indian, definitely its not appreciative to tolerate the extra marital relations of your wife. I was shocked to hear the truth but I stayed cool and calm. I already have one child and I don't want to deprive him from his mom. I am trying to figure out the reality and if it is proved that my wife conceived the child of other guy, we may opt the abortion.

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is it VERY UNLIKELY or "OUT OF THE QUESTION"? I want to be sure that she is carrying my child. Need a medical answer, but thanks for your previous input
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When did she test positive? That's another piece of the puzzle.

If she had two "normal" periods, normal for her that is, then you could say "out of the question." She can not be pregnant and have a normal period, yes there can be some bleeding. The key is, was it normal?

If she was impregnated around 7 March then she would NOT have had a period on 22 March or 20 April.

When is the due date? Have you seen a doctor? The ultrasound can also help determine when conception occurred.

Only a DNA test can conclusively prove paternity.
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No problems, I do understand the dilemmas of your beliefs and you are a good man to not want to disown your wife, she is very lucky to have a man like you. Blessed be to Allah and yourself.

Like Medic-Dan said, we can wait to see what an ultrasound says about how many weeks the baby is along. When did your wife do her pregnancy test with the positive results?

As for bleeding, SOME women do bleed for the first month but this is usually known as implantation bleeding and not to be mistaken with a period. As well SOME women (very few though) go on to bleed throughout their pregnancy and never knew until giving birth that they were pregnant. Hope we can get to the bottom of this.

About DNA testing that wouldn't be able to be done until the birth of the child, just to make you aware of this procedure.

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Indian Punjab write more..... I took my wife for ultrasound on 1st June. The report says that the duration of sac is 6 weeks & 5 days (as on 1st June). What would be exact or tentative conceiving date while keeping ultrasound report? I can even scan it for review.

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Her last period started on 4/20, correct?

6 weeks and 5 days ago is an approximate date by ultrasound. NO TEST can pinpoint when conception occurred exactly. That would place the date around 4/15. Sounds right as most doctors base dates on her last menstrual period.

She wasn't pregnant in March then Indian, they couldn't make that much of a mistake - a 4 week size difference.
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Thanks. so its confirmed that the conceiving date was in April, NOT in March.
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Based upon the information provided, yes. Conception occurred in April.
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