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My husband had chlamydia many years ago . We both took meds but we never were retested. I did have many babies after that though. I never had symptoms. He now has it again. Does that mean he could have had it all this time with no sign or he has been reinfected? Do men always show symptoms and how long does it take to develop?

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Men usually do not show symptoms of chlamydia. If the antibiotics did not cure him the first time, then he most likely would have reinfected you during your "many babies" period. In other words, it is possible that either your husband or yourself were not cured with the antibiotics the first time and one of you would have reinfected the other. In this case you both would have had it for these many years. However, I find this unlikely. You were most certainly tested for std's during your pregnancy. They do this on your first ob/gyn pregnancy visit. It would have shown up there. Chlamydia is easily transmitted through unprotected intercourse. It is very unlikely that your husband had "dormant chlamydia" that did not spread to you. Chlamydia does not lie dormant. Either you have it, and are contagious, or you do not. Unfortunately, the most likely scenario is that he was reinfected more recently, and if you are having unprotected sex with him, then most likely you are infected now as well.
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