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I know this topic has been talked to death on here, but I thought I'd post my specific situation and get feedback...


GF had last period somewhere between Sept 1-4. Usually has 5 week cycles. On Thurs 23 we fooled around. Her cervical mucous indicated she had already ovulated and was a bit passed that phase (was a bit runny, with cloudy white bits in it too).

I kept my pants on the whole time, she did not. I performed manual stimulation, and washed my hands anytime I thought I had anything on them from me. I had not previously ejaculated for about 4-5 days, and obviously had urinated several times in between.

Pre cum did get on my sweat pants (no underwear on) and you could see the wet parts. She did get on top of me despite my protests and I'm worried the pre cum stained areas of my pants may have touched her vagina. Also she did reach into my pants twice, and I'm not sure if she touched herself after (she denies it but I don't know).

So based on how the transfer could happen, the fact that I never actually ejaculated and only had precum present, I never penetrated her with my penis, and I had no ejaculated in almost a week with urination in between, what are the odds?

She does claim her tummy aches she gets a bit before her period are coming...but I don't know what that could mean....

Thanks in advance!

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I would say since you did not ejaculate in that long of a time then you and her are going to be okay :)

 

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