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Although I see different people say there are studies that insist there is 0 sperm in percum, this study states otherwise.

Actual peer-reviewed scientific journal -
Title: Sperm content of pre-ejaculatory fluid
Source: Human fertility [1464-7273] Killick yr:2011 vol:14 iss:1 pg:48 -52

Summary of results:

"This study was designed to establish whether motile spermatozoa are released with pre-ejaculatory fluid and whether this fluid therefore poses a risk for unintended pregnancy. Forty samples of pre-ejaculatory fluid were examined from 27 volunteer men. Samples were obtained by masturbation and by touching the end of the penis with a Petri dish prior to ejaculation. Eleven of the 27 subjects (41%) produced pre-ejaculatory samples that contained spermatozoa and in 10 of these cases (37%), a reasonable proportion of the sperm was motile. The volunteers produced on up to five separate occasions and sperms were found in either all or none of their pre-ejaculatory samples. Hence, condoms should continue to be used from the first moment of genital contact, although it may be that some men, less likely to leak spermatozoa in their pre-ejaculatory fluid, are able to practice coitus interruptus more successfully than others."

In the human body, I believe anything is possible, even when some say it is not.  A friend of mine in college got pregnant by a man who had a vasectomy a number of years prior.  They are married now, and have a second child.  That "shouldn't have happened", but I believe anything can.
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As this was asked 3 months ago, you have already learned the answer to whether or not your GF is pregnant. However, I'll respond to this anyway for anyone who might see it in the future.



First off, it being your first time doesn't make any difference. Her using the restroom doesn't really decrease the chances. Her vagina is not her urethra. The only impact that may have made is gravity. As in, it's more difficult to for sperm to swim up through the cervix when a woman is standing.



The odds of having sperm in pre-ejaculate are slim to none. However that doesn't mean it can't happen. Though it's VERY rare.



Overall, you really need to use a condom and she needs to get on the pill. She can do this by going to Planned Parenthood or another clinic, and doesn't need to tell her parents. Not that I condone hiding it from her parents, but I do understand the desire for secrecy.



The fact is, the age and health of a girl is a big factor in whether or not she'll get pregnant. And a teenage girl, and into her 20's, can generally get pregnant about as often as sneezing. They're pretty fertile. So be careful.



On another note, it's unfortunate your first time happened in such a surreptitious and rushed way. It should be more than that. I hope you'll approach sex in a far more mature and thoughtful way in the future.



Good luck.
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Sorry.  Double post.
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Okay, I need some help here! I'm freaking out, I'm 15.. and I gave my boyfriend a ha****b & he fingered me... But while I was giving him a ha****b we were in the middle of it and he fingered me and I am scared because I could feel a little wetness which was the pre-*** (Cowper's fluid) and then he stopped fingering me and I went back to giving him a ha****b! I made him finish himself up because I didn't want *** all over me!.. & the day that this happened was my ovulation day!... So could I be pregnant because of this, he doesnt think he got any pre-*** on his fingers but ya never know & because it was my ovulation day does that make it more likely for me to get pregnant from this?
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So is it worse if he" popped the girls cherry". And he might have per cummed?
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LET ME JUST SAY THIS...... MY DAUGHTER IN LAW WAS RAPED, AND NOW PREGNANT, MY SON WAS FIXED ABOUT 5 YEARS AGO, THIS HAPPENED BACK IN APRIL, THE GUY DIDNT EJACKULATE, SON IS GONNA GO GET HIS SELF CHECKED TO MAKE SURE EVERYTHING IS STILL INTACT, NOTHING HAS HAPPENED IN 5 YEARS, BUT JUST FOR SAFTEY HE'S GONNA GET CHECK ANYHOW..........
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So if the man ejaculated say an hour before, then used the pull out method, there would definitley be some left over? I dont think he used the bathroom between ejaculations.. Getting worried over here..
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Pre-cum does not contain sperm. The Cowper gland (were pre-cum is made) and the testicles (were the sperm is) are not the same thing. The pre-cum prepares the track (cleans it) for the ejaculation (sperm) to leave the male body with the most success. The pre-cum neutralizes acid in the track (left by urine). The acid would kill make a bad condition for the sperm and chances are not many would survive long enough to fertilize an egg.
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That's not what UK research has indicated. Some men always have active sperm in their pre-cum; others, never.
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how if the intercourse was not done but fluid might have just touched vagina..????
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so shld i tell my gf to have an ipill becuz she is little worried becuz it was are first time and we didnt had an intercourse but still you can understand that we have a feeling of having sex and by mistake our sexual organs touched when such fluid or precum was there on my penis..we didnt had intercourse but still..please tell me the way..!!!
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what is bc?
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No.
And there is no such thing as a "cherry." You need to look into what supposed "virginity" actually is. There isn't some flap of skin blocking the entire vagina like we are led to believe. This is what a hymen looks like

 ***this post is edited by moderator *** ***explicit and graphic content*** Please read our Terms of Use


It's nothing. It's a bit of skin around the vaginal opening that is stretched, or sometimes torn, in order for the vagina to accommodate whatever you're putting in. It can be stretched during masturbation, fingering, intercourse, tampon use, etc. You're not popping anything.

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It is likely, especially if he didn't urinate between.
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Thank you for looking into this yourself! That's fantastic. I've come across ONE verifiable study on the topic (http://www.ncbi.nlm.nih.gov/pubmed/12286905). It says that while sometimes (rarely) sperm was found in precum, "very small amount of sperm which seemed to be immobile"; same as a man who is considered infertile.

My partner and I have been using the pull out method exclusively (save for a few random times of condom use) for 3.5 years, and many times before that too. We have never, ever had a problem. I feel pretty much 100% certain that people who supposedly get pregnant from "using" the pull out method are not using it correctly. Either they do not "time it" correctly or there was sperm left in the man's urethra from a previous ejaculation.
I don't understand either of these problems. First off, why use the pull out method at all if you don't know your body well enough/don't have the self control to make sure you pull out BEFORE you can't wait any longer? It doesn't suffice to wait until you're about to--you have to stop before you're about to come. My lover stops well before he gets to that point and again, we've had no problems. And secondly, I'd imagine that it's just common sense to operate under the assumption that if you have recently ejaculated, it is possible that perhaps it didn't all come out. Duh.

Anyway, just wanted to throw in my two cents too.
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