My husband and I had sex the night of February 17 (our third anniversary <3), in the heat of the moment we forgot to use contraceptives and he was force to pull out before ejaculating on my leg. The following morning (February 18) I had my period,which lasted four days(through the 21st of February). I haven't been documenting my period so I'm not entirely sure of when I ovulate, however, I know normal ovulation is between CD 10 and CD 16. I also know that sperm can live within the female body for up to 7 days and pre-ejaculate can carry traces of sperm (however this would only happen if he had ejaculated prior, which he did not). Then on March 10, my husband I had sex, we used a condom but brief before we used the condom he enter me raw (again I'm worry is with pre-ejaculate but because he had urinated before hand and hadn't ejaculated prior there shouldn't have been any sperm in his pre-ejaculate, correct?).
From what I gather my chances are dismal at best. He would first have to have had sperm in his pre-ejaculate(Not that likely since he hadn't already had sperm released into is penis), said sperm would then have survive in my vagina for at least 5+ days( and if they did I doubt they would be strong enough to cause a healthy pregnancy), and I would need to ovulate during my period or immediately after (which is near impossible to my knowledge).
With All that in mind I'm still rather conflicted. What are you my chances I'm going to need to buy diapers for anew bundle of join? Are they as near impossible as I currently think they are? What are my chances of miscarrage?